Would you have a problem or not with waiving the waiting period if the purchaser had on his or her person, a firearm? Meaning, Joe Shmoe walks into Baby Killers R Us, and after fondling himself while looking at the Blast-O-Matic R7 (now with interchangeable back straps!) offers to buy it. After passing the background check, the store owner asks if Joe has a concealed permit or if he can show possession. Joe opens up the cased Blast-O-Matic R6 he brought with him, and the store owners completes the sale.
Is this permissible? We're told all the time that a waiting period is necessary because of .001% of the populace might have poor impulse control. Logically then, there is no need to delay the sale of a firearm if the purchaser shows that he is already in possession.
Or do you not really believe in the waiting period as stopping anything and more enjoy it as a way to hassle gun owners?